Solution
No, it is not necessarily the case. For example, with , the subgroups of are of the form ; but the quotients are not of this form since they are finite.
For a counter-example in the finite groups, it’s a bit less trivial.

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No, it is not necessarily the case. For example, with , the subgroups of are of the form ; but the quotients are not of this form since they are finite.
For a counter-example in the finite groups, it’s a bit less trivial.
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