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- Let ∗1:Z×Z⟶Z be the operation such that ∀a,b∈Z,a∗1b:=a−b.
Is ∗1 commutative ?
- Let ∗2:Z×Z⟶R be the operation such that ∀a,b∈Z,a∗2b:=2a−b.
Is ∗2 commutative ?
- Let ∗3:Q∗×Q⟶Q be the operation such that ∀a,b∈Q∗,a∗3b:=ba+ab.
Is ∗3 commutative ?
Solutions
1Reveal solutionsAre you sure? Give it a try first.
Take a=0 and b=1, then a∗1b=a−b=0−1=−1 but b∗1a=b−a=1−0=1=a∗1b so ∗1 is not commutative.
Take a=1 and b=0, then a∗2b=2a−b=21 but b∗1a=2b−a=2=a∗2b so ∗2 is not commutative.
This operation is commutative. Indeed, if one consider a,b∈Q∗, then one gets:
b∗3a=ab+ba=ba+ab=a∗3b,which is exactly what we wanted !